database mcq2

Question: 1

What is a database?

(A) It is a collection of data arranged in rows

(B) It is a collection of data arranged in rows and columns

(C) It is a collection of data arranged in columns

(D) All of the above

Ans: C

It is a collection of data arranged in columns

Question: 2

A record is related to a file as a statement is related to a ____

(A) procedure

(B) data

(C) file

(D) program

Ans: B

data

Question: 3

Data independency in DBMS is known as ____

(A) Data modeling

(B) Data hiding

(C) Data consistency

(D) Data capturing

Ans: A

Data modeling

Question: 4

We can quickly move a cursor by

(A) Mouse

(B) Printer

(C) Keyboard

(D) Monitor

Ans: A

Mouse

Question: 5

A datawarehouse

(A) contains numerous naming conventions and formats

(B) is organized around important subject areas

(C) contains only current data

(D) can be updated by end users

Ans: B

is organized around important subject areas

Question: 6

Attributes can be defined for

(A) Pages

(B) Macro

(C) Switch board

(D) Entity

Ans: D

Entity

Question: 7

What refers to a set of characters of a particular design?

(A) Calligraphy

(B) Typeface

(C) Stencil

(D) Keyface

Ans: A

Calligraphy

Question: 8

Computer manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called

(A) File handling

(B) Compiling

(C) Batching

(D) Processing

Ans: D

Processing

Question: 9

A Field is a related group of ____

(A) Characters

(B) Cables

(C) Files

(D) Records

Ans: A

Characters

Question: 10

C was primarily developed as

(A) System programming language

(B) Data processing language

(C) General purpose language

(D) None of the above

Ans: A

System programming language

Question: 11

A field that uniquely identifies which person, thing, or event the record describes is a ____

(A) Key

(B) Field

(C) Data

(D) File

Ans: A

Key

Question: 12

A data dictionary doesn’t provide information about ____

(A) the size of the disk storage disk

(B) where data is located

(C) how owns or is responsible for the data

(D) who owns or is responsible for the data

Ans: A

the size of the disk storage disk

Question: 13

Participants can see and hear each other in a/an

(A) Message system

(B) Bulletin board

(C) Teleconference

(D) Electronic mail system

Ans: C

Teleconference

Question: 14

Example of non-numeric data is

(A) Bank balance

(B) Examination score

(C) Employee address

(D) All of these

Ans: C

Employee address

Question: 15

Error which is diagnosed by compiler is

(A) Semantic error

(B) Logical error

(C) Syntax error

(D) None of the above

Ans: C

Syntax error

Digital marketing mcq unit 4

Digital marketing mcq unit 4

1. What is one of the advantages of digital transformation strategic?
(A) New Channel of contact with costumer
(B) Maintain the traditional channels
(C) Increasing the budget for Investigation and development
(D) None of the above

Correct option is A

2. Information Technologies allow the company to
(A) Do the activities needed anywhere
(B) Increase the knowledge about market
(C) focus its investments on technological solution
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

3. This pillar helps the company to create new automation processes, better design and improvements in processes.
(A) Digital costumer relationship
(B) Digital Operations and Automating processes
(C) Building digital and organization
(D) Harnessing data and advanced technology

Correct option is C

4. The piller digitizing costumer relationship create
(A) New costumer experience
(B) Development of process
(C) Better design
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

5. Advantage of information in cloud computing are
(A) Speed up access to information of the company
(B) Develop new functionality and actulization
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

Correct option is C

6. An online presence is any existence of an individual or business that can_____. This existence ties directly into how reputable your business appears online.
(A) Not be identified
(B) Be found via an online search
(C) Be found via Google
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

7. The most effective online marketing tool according to over 68% of small business is...
(A) Phone book
(B) Social media
(C) Website
(D) SEO

Correct option is C

8. Monitoring tools are
(A) Google analytics
(B) Google keyword tool
(C) Klout
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

9. What is the full form of ROI ?
(A) Return on increment
(B) Return on investment
(C) Reducing in increment
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

10. What is digital marketing ROI ?
(A) Digital marketing ROI is the measure of the profit that you generate on your digital marketing campaigns
(B) Digital marketing ROI is the measure of the loss that you generate on your digital marketing campaigns
(C) Either A or B
(D) None of the above

Correct option is C

11. What is the full form of CPA ?
(A) Cost per action
(B) Cost per acquisition
(C) Both A or B
(D) None of the above

Correct option is C

12. What are the most effective ways to increase traffic to your website?
(A) Paid search
(B) Display advertising
(C) SEO activities
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

13. What can be the ideal approach for effective PPC campaigns?
(A) Add more PPC keywords to expand the reach
(B) Split ads into smaller segments to have a better Click Through Rate (CTR)
(C) Review non-performing PPC keywords
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

14. For making advertisement s more effective, the manufacturers improve _____________and launch new products
(A) Existing products
(B) Advertisement style
(C) Marketing channel
(D) All of the above

Correct option is A

15. Mention some bidding options.
(A) CPC
(B) CPA
(C) CPI
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

 

Digital marketing mcq unit 3

Digital marketing mcq unit 3

1. Search engine marketing is
(A) A process of promoting a website through paid ads
(B)A process of improving the positioning of a website using organic reach
(C) A process of improving the positioning of a website using paid and organic reach
(D) All of the above

Correct option is C

2. A landing page is
(A) Page users reach when they click on the link displayed in the search engine result page
(B) The home page of website
(C) Any page of the website
(D) All of the above

Correct option is A

3. SEM consist of
(A) Paid reach and reach engine ads
(B) Paid and organic reach
(C) SEO and organic reach
(D) All of above

Correct option is B

4. PPC is short for
(A) Pay per cost
(B) Pay per click
(C) Pay per conversion
(D) Pay per common

Correct option is B

5.A bid is :
(A) The maximum amount you are willing to spend per day for campaign
(B) The maximum amount you are willing to pay for a click on your ad
(C) The cost of the ads
(D) Electronic marketing

Correct option is B

6. A tool that can help with key word research is
(A) Google analytics
(B) Keyword planner
(C) Bing analytics
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

7. Which of the following is the form of mobile marketing?
(A) Text
(B) Voice call
(C) Graphic
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

8. what is the full form of LBS
(A) Lead based service
(B) List based service
(C) Location based service
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

9. How many maximum character are allowed in sms marketing?
(A) 150
(B) 160
(C) 170
(D) 180

Correct option is B

10. What is true about 2D barcodes?
(A) barcodes cannot scan vertically
(B) barcodes cannot scan horizontally
(C) A mobile user can scan barcodes in the environment to access associated information.
(D) None of above

Correct option is C

11. Social networks are organized primarily around
(A) Brands
(B) People
(C) Discussion
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

12. How many main pillars of digital marketing?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 4

Correct option is A

13. SEO Stands for _____
(A) Search entry optimization
(B) Search engine optimization
(C) Search entry operation
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

14. Search engine optimization is the process of ___________ of a website or a web page in a search engine's search results.
(A) Getting meta tags
(B) Affecting the visibility
(C) Generating cached files
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

15. SEO is to improve the volume and ___________ to a web site from search engines.
(A) Advertisement
(B) Quality of traffic
(C) Look and feel
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

Digital marketing mcq unit 2

Digital marketing mcq unit 2

1. Social networks are organized primarily around ____.
(A) Brands
(B) People
(C) Discussion
(D) All of the above

Correct option is B

2. Which social network is considered the most popular for social media marketing?
(A) Twitter
(B) Whatsapp
(C) LinkedIn
(D) Facebook

Correct option is D

3.What is the name for Facebook`s ranking algorithm?
(A) Like Rank
(B) Face Rank
(C) Page Rank
(D) Edge Rank

Correct option is D

4. Social networks have an enormous information sharing capacity. As such, they are a great distribution channel for
(A) Customer feedbac
(B) Viral content
(C) Exclusive coupon
(D) Marketing message

Correct option is D

5. Which social network is considered the most popular for business to business marketing?
(A) Twitter
(B) Whatsapp
(C) LinkedIn
(D) Facebook

Correct option is C

6.What is the term adopted for updates by Twitter users?
(A) Tweets
(B) Twoots
(C) Twinks
(D) None of above

Correct option is A

7.  What is meant by “guerilla marketing”?
(A) Using resources such as time, energy and imagination rather than money to market
(B) Using advertising spots which utilize gorillas to capture the audience
(C) Having a large scale marketing budget
(D) All of above

Correct option is D

8. Which of the following is functions of social media for business? 
(A) Are you participating in the conversation and sharing?
(B) Are you listening and monitoring what is being said about you?
(C) Both
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

9. What is the name of Facebook's analytic package?
(A) Princeps
(B) Viewership
(C) Insights
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

10. What would the marketing budget section of a marketing plan detail?
(A) The expected costs for each ad campaign based on the delivery method
(B) The cost of the right plan
(C) The marketing personal job discription
(D) None of above

Correct option is A

11. What is "social media optimization"? 
(A) Writing clear content
(B) Creating short content
(C) Creating content which easily creates publicity via social networks
(D) None of above

Correct option is C

12. What is meant by "micro-blogging"?
(A) Blogs with limited individual posts, limited by character count typically
(B) Blogs which are posted by companies, not individuals
(C) Blogging from mobile device
(D) None of above

Correct option is A

13. Why is it important to post to a blog regularly?
(A) It reduces the cost per blog post
(B) Keep readers engaged and also give search engines content to index
(C) It gives the social media marketing specialist something to do
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

14.Which of the following is an important aspect of creating blogs and posting content?
(A) Using a witty user name
(B) Posting at least once a month to the blog
(C) Social Media Optimization
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

15. What is a “vlog”?
(A) Video log
(B) Video blog
(C) Log of blog activity
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

16. In a company who should own the social marketing plan?
(A) Head of marketing
(B) CFO
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

Correct option is C

 

 

Renewable Energy Resources MCQ Unit - 5

Renewable Energy Resources MCQ Unit -5 

1. Biomass derived from
(A) Plants
(B) Forest resedues
(C) Animal dung
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

2. Biogas contain
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Propane
(D) Butane

Correct option is A

3. The principle of biochemical conversion having
(A) Anaerobic digestion
(B) Fermentation
(C) Both
(D) None of above

Correct option is C

4. Which are the stage of digestion system ?
(A) Hydrolysis
(B) Acidification
(C) Methane formation
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

5. What is the percentage at which rated power from biogas in petrol engine can be developed?
(A) 70
(B) 80
(C) 85
(D) 90

Correct option is C

6. Which of the SI engine can be run on biogas?
(A)Diesel engine
(B) Petrol engine
(C) IC engine
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

7. How many types of gasifiers are there?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Correct option is C

8. Which is the type of energy where the energy is harnessed by the heat accumulated on the surface of water?
(A) Wind energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy conversion
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

9. Who first recognized the OTEC ?
(A) D’Arsonva
(B) Alexander Edmond Becquerel
(C) James Prescott joule
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

10. Which of the following has the lowest efficiency?
(A) Wave energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Wind energy
(D) OTEC

Correct option is D

11. Anderson cycle is also known as
(A) Open cycle
(B) Closed cycle
(C) Cloud cycle
(D) None of above

Correct option is B

12. Cloud cycle is also known as
(A) Open Cycle
(B) Closed Cycle
(C) Anderson Cycle
(D) None of above

Correct option is A

13. The working fluid chosen by Anderson OTEC cycle is
(A) Water
(B) Propane
(C) Engine oil
(D) Methane

Correct option is B

14. From which cycle does maximum possible efficiency of a heat engine operating between two temperature limits cannot exceed?
(A) Open Cycle
(B) Closed Cycle
(C) Otto Cycle
(D) Carnot Cycle

Correct option is D

15. The ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) is uses
(A) Energy difference
(B) Potential difference
(C) Temperature difference
(D) All of the above

Correct option is C

16. Waves are caused indirectly by ______
(A) Wave energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Solar energy
(D) Thermal energy

Correct option is C

17. Which type of turbine is commonly used in tidal energy?
(A) Francis turbine
(B) Pelton wheel
(C) Kaplan turbine
(D) Gorlov turbine

Correct option is C

18. Which country has world’s largest tidal power plant?
(A) Laos
(B) Netherlands
(C) South korea
(D) Austria

Correct option is C

19. how much time does it take for one tidal cycle?
(A) 22h, 20m
(B) 24h, 50m
(C) 22h, 50m
(D) 24h, 20m

Correct option is B

20. What type of tide is it if the difference between high and low tide is greatest?.
(A) Diurnal tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Ebb tide
(D) Spring tide

Correct option is D

21. A tide whose difference between high and low tides is least is called as
(A) Diurnal tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Ebb tide
(D) Spring tide

Correct option is B

22. What types of tides occur when there is so much interference with continents?
(A) Diurnal tide
(B) Neap tide
(C) Ebb tide
(D) Spring tide

Correct option is A

23. Tidal energy has ________ for future electricity generation.
(A) Wind energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Potential
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

Renewable Energy Resources MCQ Unit - 4

Renewable Energy Resources MCQ Unit - 4

 

1. Thermocouple is a ______________

(A) Tertiary transducer
(B) Secondary transducer
(C) Primary transducer
(D) None of the above

Correct option is C

2. Operation of thermocouple is based on _______________

(A) Peltier effect
(B) Seebeck effect
(C) Thomson effect
(D) All of the mentioned

Correct option is D

3. ________ describes current flow between two junctions formed by two different metals.

(A) Peltier effect
(B) Thomson effect
(C) Seebeck effect
(D) None of the mentioned

Correct option is A

4. In closed circuit, if the current I flows through a resistance R, the heat generated by the resistance is equal to I²R. It is known as __________

(A) Peltier effect
(B) Thomson effect
(C) Seebeck effect
(D) Joule effect

Correct option is D

5. Amount of heat liberated or absorbed when 1A current passes is called ____________

(A) Peltier coefficient
(B) Thomson coefficient
(C) Seebeck coefficient
(D) Joule coefficient

Correct option is A

6. Total seebeck effect can be found as _____________

(A) Total Peltier effect
(B) Total Thomson effect
(C) Partly peltier and thomson effect
(D) None of the mentioned

Correct option is C

7. Peltier effect is reverse of seebeck effect.

(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is A

8. Which semiconductor is(are) used in thermoelectric power generation?

(A) Bismuth telluride (Bi₂Te₃)
(B) Lead telluride (PbTe)
(C) Cesium sulphide (CeS)
(D) All the Above

Correct option is D

9. The process of emission of electron from the hot metal surfaces is called __________.
(A) Plastic emission
(B) Thermionic emission
(C) Static emission
(D) Current emission

Correct option is B

10. The particle emitted from hot cathode surface
(A) Neutrons
(B) Electrons
(C) Protons
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

11. At room temperature, the electron cannot escape metal surface due to
(A) attractive forces of nucleus
(B) repulsive forces of electrons
(C) repulsive forces of nucleus
(D) pulling force of protons

Correct option is A

12. What causes wind?
(A) Rotation of the Earth
(B) The Sun heating the atmosphere
(C) Variation in the Earth’s surface
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

13. What is the earliest recorded use for windmills?
(A) Generating electricity
(B) Pumping water
(C) Jousting
(D) Grinding grain

Correct option is B

14. How many blades does a modern wind turbine have?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) There is no standard number of blades.

Correct option is A

15. Which of these is NOT a part of a modern wind turbine?
(A) Gearbox
(B) Yaw drive
(C) Compressor
(D) Nacelle

Correct option is C

16. Which nation leads the world in installed wind energy capacity?
(A) China
(B) Germany
(C) Netherlands
(D) US

Correct option is A

17. What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?
(A) Conduction currents
(B) Convection currents
(C) Radiation currents
(D) Thermo line circulation

Correct option is B

18. What is the main source for the formation of wind?
(A) Uneven land
(B) Vegetation
(C) Seasons
(D) Sun

Correct option is D

19. Which country created wind mills?
(A) US
(B) Egypt
(C) Mongolia
(D) Iran

Correct option is D

20. Statement: During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than the air over water
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is A

21. What type of energy is wind energy?
(A) Renewable energy
(B) Non-renewable energy
(C) Conventional energy
(D) Commercial energy

Correct option is A

22. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
(A) Turbine
(B) Generators
(C) Blades
(D) Yaw motor

Correct option is A

23. Diameter of wind turbine blades …
(A) 320 feet
(B) 220 feet
(C) 80 feet
(D) 500 feet

Correct option is B

24. Suitable speed to operate wind turbines ……..
(A) 5 – 25 m/s
(B) 10 – 35 m/s
(C) 20 – 45 m/s
(D) 30 – 55 m/s

Correct option is A

25. Classification of winds is(are)
(A) Global wind
(B) Local wind
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

26. Global Cold wind move from
(A) Equatorial to polar region
(B) Polar to equatorial region
(C) Equatorial to oceanic region
(D) Oceanic to Equatorial region

Correct option is B

27. ________ force is responsible for forcing the global winds towards western direction.
(A) Coriolis
(B) Centripetal
(C) Centrifugal
(D) Gravitational

Correct option is A

28. Uneven heating occurs on land surface and water bodies are due to _____
(A) Air Currents
(B) Solar radiation
(C) Lunar eclipse
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

29. Factor affecting the distribution of wind energy
(A) Mountain chains
(B) The hills, trees and buildings
(C) Frictional effect of the surface
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

30. The wind intensity can be described by
(A) Reynolds number
(B) Mach number
(C) Beaufort number
(D) Froude number

Correct option is C

 

Renewable Energy Resources Mcq Unit - 3

Renewable Energy Resources MCQ Unit - 3

 

 

1. Geothermal energy is the thermal energy present
(A) On the surface of the earth
(B) In the interior of the earth
(C) On the surface of the ocean
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

2. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the earth surface is called
(A) Hydrothermal energy
(B) Solar energy
(C) Wave energy
(D) Geo-Thermal energy

Correct option is D

3. What does it mean when we say that geothermal energy is 'sustainable'?
(A) That it generates greenhouse gases
(B) That it will not be used up
(C) That it can be used anywhere on Earth
(D) That there is a limited supply

Correct option is B

4. How much is the average temperature at depth of 10 km of earth surface?
(A) 200^oC
(B) 900^oC
(C) 650^oC
(D) 20^oC

Correct option is A

5. The following is (are) the visible sign(s) of the large amount of heat lying in the earth’s interior.
(A) Volcanoes
(B) Geysers
(C) Hot springs
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

6. What is hot molten rock called?
(A) Lava
(B) Magma
(C) Volcano
(D) Igneous rock

Correct option is B

7. How many kinds of Geothermal steams are there?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Correct option is A

8. What are the two types of Geothermal streams?
(A) Magmatic steam
(B) Meteoritic steam
(C) Both a & b
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

9. Geothermal steams that are originates from the magma is called
(A) Magmatic steam
(B) Meteoritic steam
(C) Geomagma stem
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

10. Geothermal steams that are originates from ground water heated by magma is called
(A) Magmatic steam
(B) Meteoritic steam
(C) Geomagma stem
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

11. Who invented first geothermal plant?
(A) Enrico Fermi
(B) Michael Faraday
(C) Piero Ginori Conti
(D) Guglielmo Marconi

Correct option is C

12. In which year geothermal plant was invented?
(A) 1903
(B) 1904
(C) 1901
(D) 1902

Correct option is B

13. A geothermal solution containing appreciable amounts of sodium chloride or other salts is called as
(A) Fluids
(B) Brine
(C) Solvent
(D) Magma

Correct option is B

14. Approximate temperature of the center of earth is
(A) 1,000 K
(B) 4,000 K
(C) 6,000 K
(D) 10,000 K

Correct option is D

15. The following is (are) type(s) of Geothermal resource
(A) Hydrothermal
(B) Hot dry rock
(C) Geopressured
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

16. Water boils underground in a hydrothermal when it has pressure of about ____ atm and temperature of about ____ °C.
(A) 3, 100
(B) 6, 120
(C) 5, 140
(D) 7, 165

Correct option is D

17. Earth’s outer layer rock is called as __________.
(A) Mantle
(B) Crust
(C) Outer core
(D) Asthenosphere

Correct option is B

18. The hole on earth’s surface from where the steam from the earth comes out is called as ________.
(A) Gash
(B) Fumarole
(C) Mud pot
(D) Void

Correct option is B

19. A spring that shoots jets of hot water and steam into the air is called as _______.
(A) Mine hole
(B) Geyser
(C) Hot spring
(D) Mud pot

Correct option is B

20. Which kind geothermal plant is most common type?
(A) Dry steam
(B) Flash
(C) Binary
(D) Wet steam

Correct option is B

 Renewable Energy Resources MCQ Unit - 1

1. The disadvantage of renewable energy:-
a. Pollution is high
b. Available only in a few places
c. Running cost is high
d. Unreliable supply

 Correct option is D

2. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by which effect:-
a. Physical effect
b. Chemical effect
c. Photovoltaic effect
d. Photosynthesis effect

Correct option is c

3. The main composition of biogas is:-
a. Hydrogen
b. Methane
c. Nitrogen
d. Carbon dioxide

Correct option is B

4. Ministry which is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy sources such as solar power, wind power, small hydro, biogas etc.:-
a. Human Resource Development
b. Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c. Health and Family Welfare
d. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Correct option is D

5. India has a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power capacity:-
a. Small Hydro power
b. Solar power
c. Wind power
d. Biogas power

Correct option is C

6. World's first 100 percent solar powered international airport:-
a. Mumbai, Maharashtra
b. Cohin, Kerla
c. Chennai, Tamilnadu
d. Hyderabad, Telangana

Correct option is B

7. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy(MNRE):-
a. Large hydro power energy
b. Wind energy
c. Solar energy
d. Tidal energy

Correct option is A

8. Largest Wind Farm in India is located at:-
a. Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra
b. Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan
c. Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra
d. Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu

Correct option is B

9. Conventional energy sources may also called as:-
a. Commercial energy sources
b. Non renewable energy sources
c. Both
d. None of these

Correct option is C

10. Coal energy is mainly composed of:-
a. Methane
b. Carbon and hydrocarbons
c. Nitrogen
d. Propane

Correct option is B

11. Coal produces ________________ which is the cause of acid rain.    
a. Carbon mono-oxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Sulphar dioxide
d. None of these

Correct option is C

12. Natural gas is mainly composed of:-
a. Carbon and hydrocarbons 
b. Methane with small amount of propane and ethane
c. Nitrogen
d. Hydrogen

Correct option is B

13. Solar energy can be used as:-
a. By direct conversion to a fuel by photosynthesis
b. By conversion to electricity via thermo-electric power system
c. By direct conversion to electricity by photovoltaic
d. All of these.

Correct option is D

14. The sun releases the enormous amount of energy due to continuous _________ reaction taking place inside the sun.
a. Fission
b. Fusion
c. Both
d. None of these

Correct option is B

15. The sun sends out the energy in the form of radiations at the rate of _________. However, the energy intercepted by the earth is about ______.
a. 3.7x10^(20) MW, 1.85x10^(11) MW

b. 3.7x10^(10) MW, 1.85x10^(1) MW

c. 3.7x10^(30) MW, 1.85x10^(111) MW

d. None of these

 Correct option is A

 

16. Which energy is developed by the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon
(A) Wind energy
(B) Tidal energy
(C) Geothermal energy
(D) Solar energy

Correct option is B

17. Full form of OTEC.
(A) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
(B) Ocean Temperature Energy Conversion
(C) Outer Temperature Energy Conversion
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

18. The motion of the sea surface in the form of wind waves forms a source of energy called as ________.
(A) Wind energy
(B) Wave energy
(C) Tidal energy
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

19. There is an __________ in the temperature of the earth with increasing depth below the surface.
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Both
(D) Not fixed

Correct option is B

20. In the steam waste ______, ______ air pollutant gases are present.
(A) H₂S
(B) NH₃
(C) Both
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

21. Ministry of Non Conventional Energy Sources (MNES) renamed as ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in _______.
(A) 1981
(B) 1982
(C) 1992
(D) 2006

Correct option is D

22. The Jawaharlal Nehru national solar mission was launched on the ___________.
(A) 11 January, 2010
(B) 11 January, 2002
(C) 11 January, 2006
(D) 11 January, 2012

Correct option is A

23. Materials may used for solar cell.
(A) CuInSe₂
(B) CaS, GaAs, Cu₂S
(C) CdTe, ZnTe
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

24. The choice of materials for solar cell depends on the _________.
(A) Cost
(B) Band energy gap
(C) Efficiency
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

25. Photons of quantum energy ________ cannot contribute to photoelectric current production.
(A) hv>Eg
(B) hv=Eg
(C) hv<Eg
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

26. Cell quantity is maximum when the value of 'fill factor' approaches to ________.
(A) Greater than unity
(B) Equal to unity
(C) Lesser than unity
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

27. Maximum efficiency solar cell types in latest_______.
(A) Multi-junction concentrator solar cells
(B) Polycrystalline photovoltaic or thin-film solar cells
(C) Monocrystalline silicon solar cells
(D) Amorphous silicon solar cells

Correct option is A

28. Full form of MPPT.

(A) Minimum Power Transfer Theorem
(B) Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
(C) Maximum Power Transfer Transistion
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

29. The capacity of battery is expressed in _______.
(A) Watts
(B) Ampere-hours
(C) Ampere-watts
(D) Ampere-volts

Correct option is B

30. The applications of photovoltaic systems are_______.
(A) Solar street light
(B) Water pumping system
(C) Solar vehicles
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

 

Machine Learning Unit - 4 mcq

 

1. For the analysis of ML algorithms, we need
(A) Computational learning theory
(B) Statistical learning theory
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

2. PAC stand for
(A) Probably Approximate Correct
(B) Probably Approx Correct
(C) Probably Approximate Computation
(D) Probably Approx Computation

Correct option is A

3. ___________ of hypothesis h with respect to target concept c and distribution D , is the probability that h will misclassify an instance drawn at random according to D
(A) True Error
(B) Type 1 Error
(C) Type 2 Error
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

4. Statement: True error defined over entire instance space, not just training data
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is A

5. What are the area CLT comprised of?
(A) Sample Complexity
(B) Computational Complexity
(C) Mistake Bound
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

6. What area of CLT tells “How many examples we need to find a good hypothesis ?”?
(A) Sample Complexity
(B) Computational Complexity
(C) Mistake Bound
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

7. What area of CLT tells “How much computational power we need to find a good hypothesis ?”?
(A) Sample Complexity
(B) Computational Complexity
(C) Mistake Bound
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

8. What area of CLT tells “How many mistakes we will make before finding a good hypothesis ?”?
(A) Sample Complexity
(B) Computational Complexity
(C) Mistake Bound
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

9. (For question no. 9 and 10) Can we say that concept described by conjunctions of Boolean literals are PAC learnable?
(A) Yes
(B) No

Correct option is A

10. How large is the hypothesis space when we have n Boolean attributes?
(A) |H| = 3 ⁿ
(B) |H| = 2 ⁿ
(C) |H| = 1 ⁿ
(D) |H| = 4ⁿ

Correct option is A

11. The VC dimension of hypothesis space H1 is larger than the VC dimension of hypothesis space H2. Which of the following can be inferred from this?

(A) The number of examples required for learning a hypothesis in H1 is larger than the number of examples required for H2
(B) The number of examples required for learning a hypothesis in H1 is smaller than the number of examples required for H2.
(C) No relation to number of samples required for PAC learning.

Correct option is A

12. For a particular learning task, if the requirement of error parameter changes from 0.1 to 0.01. How many more samples will be required for PAC learning?
(A) Same
(B) 2 times
(C) 1000 times
(D) 10 times

Correct option is D

13. Computational complexity of classes of learning problems depends on which of the following?
(A) The size or complexity of the hypothesis space considered by learner
(B) The accuracy to which the target concept must be approximated
(C) The probability that the learner will output a successful hypothesis
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

14. The instance-based learner is a ____________
(A) Lazy-learner
(B) Eager learner
(C) Can’t say

Correct option is A

15. When to consider nearest neighbour algorithms?
(A) Instance map to point in kⁿ
(B) Not more than 20 attributes per instance
(C) Lots of training data
(D) None of these
(E) A, B & C

Correct option is E

16. What are the advantages of Nearest neighbour alogo?
(A) Training is very fast
(B) Can learn complex target functions
(C) Don’t lose information
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

17. What are the difficulties with k-nearest neighbour algo?
(A) Calculate the distance of the test case from all training cases
(B) Curse of dimensionality
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

18. What if the target function is real valued in kNN algo?
(A) Calculate the mean of the k nearest neighbours
(B) Calculate the SD of the k nearest neighbour
(C) None of these

Correct option is A

19. What is/are true about Distance-weighted KNN?
(A) The weight of the neighbour is considered
(B) The distance of the neighbour is considered
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

20. What is/are advantage(s) of Distance-weighted k-NN over k-NN?
(A) Robust to noisy training data
(B) Quite effective when a sufficient large set of training data is provided
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

21. What is/are advantage(s) of Locally Weighted Regression?
(A) Pointwise approximation of complex target function
(B) Earlier data has no influence on the new ones
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

22. The quality of the result depends on (LWR)
(A) Choice of the function
(B) Choice of the kernel function K
(C) Choice of the hypothesis space H
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

23. How many types of layer in radial basis function neural networks?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 4

Correct option is A

24. The neurons in the hidden layer contains Gaussian transfer function whose output are _____________ to the distance from the centre of the neuron.
(A) Directly
(B) Inversely
(C) equal
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

25. PNN/GRNN networks have one neuron for each point in the training file, While RBF network have a variable number of neurons that is usually 

(A) less than the number of training points.
(B) greater than the number of training points
(C) equal to the number of training points
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

26. Which network is more accurate when the size of training set between small to medium?

(A) PNN/GRNN
(B) RBF
(C) K-means clustering
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

27. What is/are true about RBF network?
(A) A kind of supervised learning
(B) Design of NN as curve fitting problem
(C) Use of multidimensional surface to interpolate the test data
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

28. Application of CBR
(A) Design
(B) Planning
(C) Diagnosis
(D) All of these

Correct option is A

29. What is/are advantages of CBR?
(A) A local approx. is found for each test case
(B) Knowledge is in a form understandable to human
(C) Fast to train
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

30 In k-NN algorithm, given a set of training examples and the value of k < size of training set (n), the algorithm predicts the class of a test example to be the. What is/are advantages of CBR?

(A) Least frequent class among the classes of k closest training examples.
(B) Most frequent class among the classes of k closest training examples.
(C) Class of the closest point.
(D) Most frequent class among the classes of the k farthest training examples.

Correct option is B

31. Which of the following statements is true about PCA? 

(i) We must standardize the data before applying PCA.
(ii) We should select the principal components which explain the highest variance
(iii) We should select the principal components which explain the lowest variance
(iv) We can use PCA for visualizing the data in lower dimensions
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv).
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)

Correct option is A

Parallel and Distributed Computing Unit - 5 mcq

1. Where is linear searching used?
(A) When performing a single search in an unordered list
(B) When the list has only a few elements and When performing a single search in an unordered list
(C) When the list has only a few elements
(D) Used all time

Correct option is B

2. Is there any difference in the speed of execution between linear search(recursive) vs linear search(iterative)?
(A) Both execute at same speed
(B) Linear search(Iterative) is faster
(C) Linear search(recursive) is faster (D) Can’t say

Correct option is B

3. Linear search(recursive) algorithm used in _____________
(A) When the size of the dataset is low
(B) When the size of the dataset is large
(C) When the dataset is unordered
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

4. What is the recurrence relation for the linear search recursive algorithm?
(A) T(n-2)+c
(B) 2T(n-1)+c
(C) T(n-1)+c
(D) T(n+1)+c

Correct option is C

5. The main advantages of DFS is
(A) Storage requirement is linear in the depth of state spaced
(B) Storage requirement is parallel in the depth of state spaced
(C) None of these

Correct option is A

6. _____________ of the parallel system is defined as the ratio of the work done by the parallel formulation to that done by the sequential formulation
(A) Search overhead factor
(B) Search Overwork factor
(C) Sorting overhead factor.
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

7. Executions yielding speedups greater than p by using p processors are referred to as ___________ anomalies. Speedups of less than p using p processors are called _________ anomalies.
(A) Acceleration , Deceleration
(B) Deceleration, Acceleration

Correct option is A

8. When a processor runs out of work, it gets more work from another processor that has work is called
(A) Dynamic load balancing
(B) Static load balancing
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

9. ARR stand for
(A) Asynchronous Round Robin
(B) Asynchronous Robin Round
(C) Asynchronous Round Random
(D) Asynchronous Random Round

Correct option is A

10. The system maintains a global counter and request are made in a round- robin fashion globally called
(A) Global robin round (GRR)
(B) Global round random GRR)
(C) Global round robin(GRR)
(D) Global random round (GRR)

Correct option is C

11. Statement: Quick sort follows Divide-and-Conquer strategy.
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is A

12. Strategies for parallel best-first tree search
(A) Random communication strategy
(B) Ring communication
(C) Blackboard communication
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

Parallel and Distributed Computing Unit - 4 mcq

1. The serial algorithm requires ___, for matrix multiplications and additions for n*n matrix.
(A) W = n²
(B) W = n³
(C) W = n log n
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

2. Is Sparse Matrix also known as Dense Matrix?
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is B

3. ____ is the simplest sorting algorithm that works by repeatedly swapping the adjacent element if they are in wrong order.
(A) Bubble Sort
(B) Quick Sort
(C) Merge Sort
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

4. Complexity of bubble sort in best case, worst case, and Average case respectively.
(A) O(n²), O(n³), O(n³)
(B) O(n), O(n²), O(n²)
(C) O(logn), O(n), O(n)
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

5. What is an external sorting algorithm?
(A) Algorithm that uses tape or disk during the sort.
(B) Algorithm that uses main memory during the sort.
(C) Algorithm that involves swapping
(D) Algorithm that are considered ‘in place’

Correct option is A

6. What is an internal sorting algorithm?
(A) Algorithm that uses tape or disk during the sort
(B) Algorithm that uses main memory during the sort.
(C) Algorithm that are considered ‘in place’.
(D) Algorithm that involves swapping

Correct option is B

7. Statement: Kruskal’s algorithm is best suited for the sparse graphs than the prim’s algorithm.
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is A

8. The given array is arr = {5, 6, 7, 8}. Bubble sort is used to sort the array elements. How many iterations will be done to sort the array?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 1

Correct option is A

9. The given array is arr = {1,2,4,3}. Bubble sort is used to sort the array elements. How many iterations will be done to sort the array with improvised version?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 0
(D) 1

Correct option is B

10. Which of the following sorting algorithms is the fastest?
(A) Merge Sort
(B) Quick Sort
(C) Shell sort
(D) Insertion Sort

Correct option is B

11. Statement: Quick sort follows Divide-and-Conquer strategy.
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is A

12 Which of the following methods is the most effective for picking the pivot element?
(A) First element
(B) Second element
(C) Random element
(D) Median-of-three partitioning

Correct option is D

13. Which of the following statements for a simple graph is correct?
(A) Every trail is a path as well as every path is a trail
(B) Every path is a trail
(C) Path and trail have no relation
(D) Every trail is a path

Correct option is B

14. Statement: In a simple graph, the number of edges is equal to twice the sum of the degrees of the vertices.
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is B

15. A connected planar graph having 6 vertices, 7 edges contains _____ regions.
(A) 11
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 15

Correct option is C

16. If a simple graph G, contains n vertices and m edges, the number of edges in the Graph G'(Complement of G) is _____
(A) (n*n-n-2*m)/2
(B) (n*n+n+2*m)/2
(C) (n*n-n-2*m)/2
(D) (n*n-n+2*m)/2

Correct option is A

17. Which of the following properties does a simple graph not hold?
(A) Must be connected
(B) Must have no loops or multiple edges
(C) Must be unweighted
(D) Must have no multiple edges

Correct option is A

18. Which of the following is true?
(A) A graph may contain no edges and many vertices
(B) A graph may contain no edges and no vertices
(C) A graph may contain many edges and no vertices
(D) A graph may contain no vertices and many edges

Correct option is C

19. Which of the following is false in the case of a spanning tree of a graph G?
(A) It is a subgraph of the G
(B) It is tree that spans G
(C) It includes every vertex of the G
(D) It can be either cyclic or acyclic

Correct option is D

20. Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has __ spanning trees.
(A) 13
(B) 16
(C) 8
(D) 15

Correct option is B

21. Which of the following is not the algorithm to find the minimum spanning tree of the given graph?

(A) Boruvka’s algorithm
(B) Kruskal’s algorithm
(C) Prim’s algorithm
(D) Bellman–Ford algorithm

Correct option is D

22. Dijkstra’s Algorithm is used to solve _____ problems.
(A) All pair shortest path
(B) Network flow
(C) Single source shortest path
(D) Sorting

Correct option is C

23. Which of the following is the most commonly used data structure for implementing Dijkstra’s Algorithm?
(A) Min priority queue
(B) Circular queue
(C) Stack
(D) Max priority queue

Correct option is D

24. The maximum number of times the decrease key operation performed in Dijkstra’s algorithm will be equal to _____
(A) Number of vertices – 1
(B) Number of edges – 1
(C) Total number of vertices
(D) Total number of edges

Correct option is D

 

 

Parallel and Distributed Computing Unit - 1 mcq

 Parallel and Distributed Computing Unit - 1 mcq

1. A parallel computing system consists of multiple processor that communicate with each other using a ___.
(A) Allocated memory
(B) Shared memory
(C) Network
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

2. Statement: In parallel computing systems, as the number of processors increases, with enough parallelism available in applications.
(A) True
(B) False

Correct option is A

3. What is/are the factor(s) for the popularity of Distributed system?
(A) Reliability
(B) Scalability
(C) Data Sharing
(D) Resource Sharing
(E) All of the above

Correct option is E

4. Parallel computing can be used in ___
(A) Science and engineering
(B) Database and data mining
(C) Real time simulation of systems
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

5. What are the current trends in microprocessor architecture?
(A) Increase in clock speed
(B) Pipelining
(C) Superscalar execution
(D) All of the above

Correct option is B

6. VLIW stand for
(A) Very Long Instruction processor
(B) Very Large Instruction processor
(C) Very Long Instruction processing
(D) Very Large Instruction processing

Correct option is A

7. Dichotomy of parallel computing platforms are based on
(A) Logical organization
(B) Physical organization
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

8. Critical components of parallel computing, logically:
(A) Control Structure: How to express parallel task
(B) Communication model: mechanism for specifying interaction
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

9. SIMD stand for
(A) Single Instruction, Multiple Data
(B) Simple Instruction, Multiple Data
(C) Single Instruction, Matrix Data
(D) Simple Instruction, Matrix Data

Correct option is A

10. MIMD stand for
(A) Multiple Instruction, Matrix Data
(B) Matrix Instruction, Matrix Data
(C) Matrix Instruction, Multiple Data
(D) Multiple Instruction, Multiple Data

Correct option is D

11. SIMD require less ____ than MIMD.
(A) Hardware
(B) Memory
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

12. SPMD executes
(A) Single program on different processor
(B) Multiple program on single processor
(C) Single program on single processor
(D) None of these

Correct option is A

13. Interconnection network classify as
(A) Static network
(B) Dynamic network
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

14. Static interconnection network topologies are
(A) 1 - D
(B) 2 - D
(C) HC
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

15. Static interconnection network topologies are
(A) Bus-based
(B) Switch Based
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

Correct option is D

16. What are the criteria used to characterize the cost and performance of Static ICN?
(A) Diameter
(B) Connectivity
(C) Bisection width and bandwidth
(D) Cost
(E) All of these

Correct option is E

17. What are principal that determine the communication latency between two nodes ?
(A) Startup time
(B) Per-hop time
(C) Per-word transfer time
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

18. Routing techniques used in parallel computers.
(A) Store-and-forward routing
(B) Packet routing
(C) Cut-through routing
(D) All of these

Correct option is D

19. What are routing mechanisms for interconnection networks?
(A) Minimal
(B) Non-minimal
(C) Deterministic
(D) Adaptive
(E) All of these

Correct option is E

20. GPU stand for
(A) Graphics Processing Unit
(B) Graphical Processing Unit
(C) Graphics Processed Unit
(D) Graphical Processed Unit

Correct option is A

 

  Image Processing  Unit - I mcq

 

 

1. The spatial coordinates of a digital image (x,y) are proportional to:
(A) Position
(B) Brightness
(C) Contrast
(D) Noise

Correct option is B

2. Among the following image processing techniques which is fast, precise and flexible..
(A) Optical
(B) Digital
(C) Electronics
(D) Photography

Correct option is B

3. An image is considered to be a function of a(x,y), where a represents:
(A) Height of image
(B) Width of image
(C) Amplitude of image
(D) Resolution of image

Correct option is C

4. What is pixel?
(A) Pixel is the elements of a digital image
(B) Pixel is the elements of an analog image
(C) Pixel is the cluster of a digital image
(D) Pixel is the cluster of an analog image

Correct option is A

5. The range of values spanned by the gray scale is called:
(A) Dynamic range
(B) Band range
(C) Peak range
(D) Resolution range

Correct option is A

6. Which is a colour attribute that describes a pure colour?
(A) Saturation
(B) Hue
(C) Brightness
(D) Intensity

Correct option is B

7. The smallest discernible change in intensity level is called ____________
(A) Intensity Resolution
(B) Contour
(C) Contrast
(D) Saturation

Correct option is A

8. Which means the assigning meaning to a recognized object
(A) Interpretation
(B) Recognition
(C) Acquisition
(D) Segmentation

Correct option is A

9. A typical size comparable in quality to monochromatic TV image is of size.
(A) 256 X 256
(B) 512 X 512
(C) 1920 X 1080
(D) 1080 X 1080

Correct option is B

10. The number of grey values are integer powers of:
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 8
(D) 1

Correct option is B

11. What is the first and foremost step in Image Processing?
(A) Image restoration
(B) Image enhancement
(C) Image acquisition
(D) Segmentation

Correct option is C

12. In which step of processing, the images are subdivided successively into smaller regions?
(A) Image enhancement
(B) Image acquisition
(C) Segmentation
(D) Wavelets

Correct option is D

13. What is the next step in image processing after compression? 

(A) Wavelets
(B) Segmentation
(C) Representation and description
(D) Morphological processing

Correct option is D

14. What is the step that is performed before color image processing in image processing?

(A) Wavelets and multi resolution processing
(B) Image enhancement
(C) Image restoration
(D) Image acquisition

Correct option is C

15. How many number of steps are involved in image processing?

(A) 10
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 12

Correct option is A

16. What is the expanded form of JPEG?

(A) Joint Photographic Expansion Group
(B) Joint Photographic Experts Group
(C) Joint Photographs Expansion Group
(D) Joint Photographic Expanded Group

Correct option is B

17. Which of the following step deals with tools for extracting image components those are useful in the representation and description of shape?

(A) Segmentation
(B) Representation & description functions
(C) Compression
(D) Morphological processing

Correct option is D

18. In which step of the processing, assigning a label (e.g., “vehicle”) to an object based on its descriptors is done?

(A) Segmentation
(B) Representation & description functions
(C) Object recognition
(D) Morphological processing

Correct option is C

19. What role does the segmentation play in image processing?

(A) Deals with extracting attributes that result in some quantitative information of interest
(B) Deals with techniques for reducing the storage required saving an image, or the bandwidth required transmitting it.
(C) Deals with partitioning an image into its constituent parts or objects.
(D) Deals with property in which images are subdivided successively into smaller regions

Correct option is C

20. What is the correct sequence of steps in image processing?

(A) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Image restoration->Color image processing->Compression->Wavelets and multi resolution processing->Morphological processing->Segmentation->Representation & description->Object recognition

(B) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Image restoration->Color image processing->Wavelets and multi resolution processing->Compression->Morphological processing->Segmentation->Representation & description->Object recognition

(C) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Color image processing->Image restoration->Wavelets and multi resolution processing->Compression->Morphological processing->Segmentation->Representation & description->Object recognition

(D) Image acquisition->Image enhancement->Image restoration->Color image processing->Wavelets and multi resolution processing->Compression->Morphological processing->Representation & description->Segmentation->Object recognition

Correct option is B

21. To convert a continuous sensed data into Digital form, which of the following is required?
(A) Sampling
(B) Quantization
(C) Both Sampling and Quantization
(D) Neither Sampling nor Quantization

Correct option is C

22. To convert a continuous image f(x, y) to digital form, we have to sample the function in __________
(A) Coordinates
(B) Amplitude
(C) All of the mentioned
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

23. For a continuous image f(x, y), how could be Sampling defined?
(A) Digitizing the coordinate values
(B) Digitizing the amplitude values
(C) All of the mentioned
(D) None of the mentioned

Correct option is A

24. For a continuous image f(x, y), Quantization is defined as.
(A) Digitizing the coordinate values
(B) Digitizing the amplitude values
(C) All of the mentioned
(D) None of these

Correct option is B

25. How is sampling been done when an image is generated by a single sensing element combined with mechanical motion? 

(A) The number of sensors in the strip defines the sampling limitations in one direction and Mechanical motion in the other direction.
(B) The number of sensors in the sensing array establishes the limits of sampling in both directions.
(C) The number of mechanical increments when the sensor is activated to collect data.
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

26. The resulting image of sampling and quantization is considered a matrix of real numbers. By what name(s) the element of this matrix array is called __________
(A) Image element or Picture element
(B) Pixel or Pel
(C) All of the mentioned
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

27. The digitization process i.e. the digital image has M rows and N columns, requires decisions about values for M, N, and for the number, L, of gray levels allowed for each pixel. The value M and N have to be:
(A) M and N have to be positive integer
(B) M and N have to be negative integer
(C) M have to be negative and N have to be positive integer
(D) M have to be positive and N have to be negative integer

Correct option is A

28. A continuous image is digitised at _______ points.
(A) random
(B) vertex
(C) contour
(D) sampling

Correct option is D

29. The transition between continuous values of the image function and its digital equivalent is called _____________
(A) Sampling
(B) None of the Mentioned
(C) Rasterisation
(D) Quantisation

Correct option is D

30. Images quantised with insufficient brightness levels will lead to the occurrence of ____________
(A) Pixillation
(B) Blurring
(C) False Contours
(D) None of the Mentioned

Correct option is C

 

MORE MCQ

Data compression unit 5 mcq

Data compression unit 5 mcq 

1. Characteristic of a vector quantizer

(A) Multiple quantization indexes are represented by one codeword
(B) Each input symbol is represented by a fixed-length codeword
(C) Multiple input symbols are represented by one quantization index
(D) All of the above

Correct option is C

2. Vector quantization is rarely used in practical applications, why?

(A) The coding efficiency is the same as for scalar quantization
(B) The computational complexity, in particular for the encoding, is much higher than in scalar quantization and a large codebook needs to be stored
(C) It requires block Huffman coding of quantization indexes, which is very complex
(D) All of the above

Correct option is B

3. Let N represent the dimension of a vector quantizer. What statement about the performance of the best vector quantizer with dimension N is correct?

(A) For N approaching infinity, the quantizer performance asymptotically approaches the rate-distortion function (theoretical limit)
(B) By doubling the dimension N, the bit rate for the same distortion is halved
(C) The vector quantizer performance is independent of N
(D) All of the above

Correct option is A

4. Which of the following is/are correct for advantage of vector quantization over scalar quantization

(A) Vector Quantization can lower the average distortion with the number of reconstruction levels held constant
(B) Vector Quantization can reduce the number of reconstruction levels when distortion is held constant
(C) Vector Quantization is also more effective than Scalar Quantization When the source output values are not correlated
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

5. Vector quantization is used for

(A) Lossy data compression
(B) Lossy data correction
(C) Pattern recognition
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

6. The Linde–Buzo–Gray algorithm is a ______ quantization algorithm to derive a good codebook.

(A) Scalar
(B) Vector
(C) Both
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

7. Vector quantization is used in

(A) Video coding
(B) Audio coding
(C) Speech coding
(D) All of the above

Correct option is C

8. What are process(Techniques) used in video coding?

(A) Partition of frames into macro blocks
(B) Form of Vector Quantization
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

Data compression unit 4 mcq

 Data compression unit 4 mcq

 

1. Which of the following characterizes a quantizer

(A) Quantization results in a non-reversible loss of information
(B) A quantizer always produces uncorrelated output samples
(C) The output of a quantizer has the same entropy rate as the input
(D) None of the above

Correct option is A

2. What is the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)?

(A) The ratio of the average squared value of the source output and the squared error of the source output
(B) The ratio of the average squared value of the source output and the mean squared error of the source output
(C) The ratio of the average squared value of the source output and the absolute difference measure of the source output
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

3. The output signal of a scalar quantizer has property

(A) The output is a discrete signal with a finite symbol alphabet
(B) The output is a discrete signal with a countable symbol alphabet (but not necessarily a finite symbol alphabet)
(C) The output signal may be discrete or continuous
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

4. What is a Lloyd quantizer?

(A) For a given source, the Lloyd quantizer is the best possible scalar quantizer in ratedistortion sense. That means, there does not exist any other scalar quantizer that yields a smaller distortion at the same rate.
(B) The output of a Lloyd quantizer is a discrete signal with a uniform pmf
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) A Lloyd quantizer is the scalar quantizer that yields the minimum distortion for a given source and a given number of quantization intervals.

Correct option is D

5. Which of the following statement is correct for comparing scalar quantization and vector quantization?

(A) Vector quantization improves the performance only for sources with memory. For iid sources, the best scalar quantizer has the same efficiency as the best vector quantizer
(B) Vector quantization does not improve the rate-distortion performance relative to scalar quantization, but it has a lower complexity
(C) By vector quantization we can always improve the rate-distortion performance relative to the best scalar quantizer
(D) All of the above

Correct option is C

6. If {x}_n is the source output and {y}_n is the reconstructed sequence, then the squared error measure is given by
(A) d(x, y) = (y - x)²
(B) d(x, y) = (x - y)²
(C) d(x, y) = (y + x)²
(D) d(x, y) = (x - y)⁴

Correct option is B

7. If {x}_n is the source output and {y}_n is the reconstructed sequence, then the absolute difference measure is given by
(A) d(x, y) = |y - x|
(B) d(x, y) = |x - y|
(C) d(x, y) = |y + x|
(D) d(x, y) = |x - y|²

Correct option is B

8. The process of representing a _______ possibly infinite set of values with a much _______ set is called quantization

(A) Large, smaller
(B) Smaller, large
(C) None of these

Correct option is A

9. The set of inputs and outputs of a quantizer can be
(A) Only scalars
(B) Only vectors
(C) Scalars or vectors
(D) None of these

Correct option is C

10. Which of the folowing is/are correct for uniform quantizer

(A) The simplest type of quantizer is the uniform quantizer
(B) All intervals are the same size in the uniform quantizer, except possibly for the two outer intervals
(C) The decision boundaries are spaced evenly
(D) All of the above

Correct option is D

11. If a Zero is assigned a decision level, then what is the type of quantizer?
(A) A midtread quantizer
(B) A midrise quantizer
(C) A midtreat quantizer
(D) None of the above

Correct option is B

12. If a Zero is assigned a quantization level, then what is the type of quantizer?

(A) A midtread quantizer
(B) A midrise quantizer
(C) A midtreat quantizer
(D) None of the above

Correct option is A

13. The main approaches to adapting the quantizer parameters:
(A) An off-line or forward adaptive approach
(B) An on-line or backward adaptive approach
(C) Both
(D) None of the above

Correct option is C

14. Uniform quantizer is also called as

(A) Low rise quantizer
(B) High rise quantizer
(C) Mid rise quantizer
(D) None of the above

Correct option is C

15. Non uniform quantizer ______ distortion.

(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Doesn't change
(D) None of the above

Correct option is A

16. The spectral density of white noise is ______.

(A) Poisson
(B) Exponential
(C) Uniform
(D) Gaussian

Correct option is C